Because yield to maturity is the interest rate an investor would earn by reinvesting every coupon payment from the bond at a constant interest rate until the bond's maturity date, the present value of all the future cash flows equals the bond's market price.
Not exact matches
Government bonds could help reduce default risk, but
because of the length of
maturity required
to earn any meaningful
yield, they do little
to reduce duration risk - i.e. the overall sensitivity of a portfolio
to interest rate rises.
Because the Chinese
yield curve is extremely flat, investors wouldn't even need
to invest in longer
maturities in order
to obtain higher
yields, meaning that they can remain comfortabe in shorter and less risky
maturities.
The
yield to maturity is higher than the 3 % coupon
because when the bond expires, I get paid back $ 100 a share.
Naturally, a policy buyer would prefer the insured
to be elderly, in poor health, with a policy that has low cash value and a high death benefit,
because all of these factors might increase the buyer's
yield -
to -
maturity on the policy when you die.
Because bonds with longer
maturities have a greater level of risk due
to changes in interest rates, they generally offer higher
yields so they're more attractive
to potential buyers.
This ETF would be much less tax - efficient than a five - year GIC ladder,
because that entire 4.27 % coupon (minus fees) is fully taxable, even though the
yield to maturity is just 1.32 %.
This makes the
yield to maturity easier
to calculate for zero coupon bonds,
because there are no coupon payments
to reinvest, making it equivalent
to the normal rate of return on the bond.
It is invested primarily in the credit market, not so much in government bonds
because government bond
yields are so low, but we're looking for absolute returns even if interest rates go up, so some of the portfolio, a significant piece of it actually, is floating rate, so if interest rates go up, you just get higher cash flows, which will support higher returns, and the rest of the portfolio is in relatively short
maturity bonds, which will have some price volatility and if there's bad market conditions, will have temporary losses, so the goal is
to offer something that is absolute returns.
But
because the investor would pay a premium
to purchase the existing note, the
yield to maturity falls
to 5.50 %.
I'm going
to focus on
yield to maturity because it is a rough indicator of what sort of return each fund is likely
to generate.
XBB has a large number of premium bonds (
because of falling interest rates), which results in a capital loss when they mature, and it is this that results in the lower
yield to maturity.
In other words, if interest rates stay the same, you can expect CLF
to post capital losses
because its cash
yield is higher than its
yield -
to -
maturity.
Because today's
yields -
to -
maturity are all close
to 1.8 %, it is a good idea
to emphasize shorter
maturities with the hope of obtaining higher interest rates in the future.
I abbreviate: inflation - protected bonds = IPB (I choose this term
because I don't want
to limit this question
to US TIPS);
yield to maturity = YTM.
Yields on callable bonds tend to be higher than yields on noncallable, «bullet maturity» bonds because the investor must be rewarded for taking the risk the issuer will call the bond if interest rates decline, forcing the investor to reinvest the proceeds at lower y
Yields on callable bonds tend
to be higher than
yields on noncallable, «bullet maturity» bonds because the investor must be rewarded for taking the risk the issuer will call the bond if interest rates decline, forcing the investor to reinvest the proceeds at lower y
yields on noncallable, «bullet
maturity» bonds
because the investor must be rewarded for taking the risk the issuer will call the bond if interest rates decline, forcing the investor
to reinvest the proceeds at lower
yieldsyields.