Prove
that objective morality exists without resorting to subjective means.
If not, then
objective morality exists, if yes, then objective morality still exists.
If
no objective morality exists, then there is no «right» or «wrong», there is only what you «feel».
Their reasoning goes something like this; I believe in God because
objective morality exists and the reason I believe
objective morality exists is because I believe in a god who holds that morality.
Just after you prove
objective morality exists you can show us how that is evidence for your alleged god (s).
Remember, if one thing and only one thing is objectively morally evil or good,
the objective morality exists.
Not exact matches
If the God of classical theism
existed, an
objective foundation for
morality would
exist.
Do you recognize even the POSSIBILITY that
objective morality could
exist, and that its source could be humanity as a collective?
This leads to a claim of
objective morality, where none actually
exists.
Do you recognize even the POSSIBILITY that
objective morality could
exist, and that its source could be that of a supernatural being?
Objective morality does not
exist... --------------- If that's true, then no one has any grounds to call Hitler a bad person, or that he even did anything bad or wrong at all.
Or that such a thing as your concept of
Objective Morality actually
exists.
Objective morality does not
exist, despite the protestations of numerous, disparate religions.
The only way that
objective morality can possibly
exist is if God
exists, otherwise all
morality is subjective to the opinions and whims of the individual.
But it can hardly be doubted that such a state of actually invincible error in moral questions
exists also in society or in social groups in which the individual participates, so that his power of moral discernment does not go beyond a certain point, which, through no fault of his own, falls below
objective morality.
Incidentally, even if god
exists then his does not represent
objective morality either.
However, if he commands it because
morality is
objective,
morality can, obviously,
exist without a god.
The question wasn't about historical facts, it was about whether or not
objective morality actually
exists.
There
exists no
objective morality and there can not
exist any disinterested pursuit of truth.
If you wouldn't mind, ask him how he determines that an «
objective morality»
exists?
Ask him to define that «
objective morality,» And ask him to explain how he knows that the 90 % of the American public that he thinks are incapable of critical thinking and who are immoral, don't accept that an «
objective morality» (as he defines it) even
exists.