The atheist has no grounds for
objective morality which leads to game of, «Says who?»
Not exact matches
There is no god and there is no «
objective morality» there is only
morality which many people might agree with.
Now, hypothetically, if you personally maintained belief in a supreme being (one in
which you had no verifiable proof of its existence, but yet what you considered ample evidence to place your faith in) and that being had communicated
morality in absolute terms, would you define that
morality as subjective or
objective?
But ultimately, you are embracing the latter because you are arguing an
objective / absolute
morality in god's immutable good nature
which is a source of
morality beyond god's actual control.
But it can hardly be doubted that such a state of actually invincible error in moral questions exists also in society or in social groups in
which the individual participates, so that his power of moral discernment does not go beyond a certain point,
which, through no fault of his own, falls below
objective morality.
It is His unchanging nature from
which we can ground
objective morality in.
Yes we are, because you feel for it to be worth anything at all you must have an «
objective» standard,
which even you don't have if you believe that your
morality comes from a god.
after all, how can you say that the Boston bombings might have been «good» (something
which MUST be allowed without an
objective anchor for
morality) & simultaneously extend «compassion'to those who suffered from a supposedly «good» action?
The problem is much more radical: the modern West's rejection of
objective morality, grounded in divine wisdom and intrinsic to human nature, the knowing and following of
which is the only path to individual happiness and a just social order.
, replies: «The regulation of births,
which is an aspect of responsible fatherhood and motherhood, is objectively morally acceptable when it is pursued by the spouses without external pressure; when it is practised not out of selfishness but for seriousreasons; and with methods that conform to the
objective criteria of
morality, that is, periodic continence and use of the infertile periods» (no. 497).
The problem is that there is no evidence of this «
objective morality»
which you claim.
which could simply mean that to debate with him we would simply have to accept the existence of an
objective morality; we wouldn't necessarily need to accept his specific definition of that
objective morality.