My understanding is that defendants in Britain have to prove statements
true by the preponderance of evidence, whereas in the U.S. the standard of evidence is «compelling» (a lower standard).
Not exact matches
The «
preponderance of the
evidence» standard has been defined to mean that the
evidence presented
by plaintiffs must be more likely to be
true or accurate than not
true.
Proving a proposition
by a
preponderance of the
evidence requires demonstrating that the proposition is more likely
true than not
true.