It seems to me that the principles and history of common law tends towards the removal of protected groups (e.g. aristocracy) over time (Magna Carta being a famous example) as its principles mean blatant inequalities cause tensions that are the resolved by the system, so changes occur because blatant
unfair application of the law comes to a head, but has this resulted in a explicit principle of law that can be used or is it simply a case of taking your chances as history turns?
Changes to competition
laws (milk wars discussion and recommendations relating to MMP (introduce effects test), predatory pricing (recommend Minister direct ACCC to investigate Coles for breach
of s 46 relating to predatory pricing), unconscionable conduct (suggest it be defined), statutory duty
of good faith,
unfair contract terms (seeks «recognition
of the competitive disadvantage faced by farmers» and extension
of unfair contract terms protection to small business), collective bargaining (seeks relaxation
of public interest test for boycott approvals in agriculture markets, increase «ability for peak bodies to commence and progress collective bargaining and boycott
applications» on behalf
of members - and further dairy specific recommendations, ACCC divestiture power (wants ACCC to have similar divestiture powers to Comp Commission in UK - «simpler process
of divestiture», ACCC monitoring powers (wants Minister to direct ACCC to use price monitoring powers to «monitor prices, costs and profits relating to the supply
of drinking milk») and mandatory code
of conduct (wants mandatory code and «Ombudsman with teeth to ensure compliance»)-RRB-.
In my experience as a family
law lawyer, however, it has seemed to me that the bell curve modeling the impact
of legislation on my clients has perhaps a higher standard
of deviation than the norm, giving the bell curve a greater population at the extremes and thus fatter tails than suggested by the normal distribution; in other words, my impression is that quite a bit more than 5 %
of separating couples experience an
unfair or very
unfair result from the
application of family
law legislation.
If you are guilty (as in, you've committed the offence not been judged)
of an offence but your arrest / prosecution is
unfair in its
application can this be used as a defence in common
law?